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Pricing and Valuation of Swaps: practice question

Derivatives · Pricing and Valuation of Swaps · Question ID deriv-i02-9

A pension fund enters a three-year equity swap in which, each quarter, it pays the total return on the Vossingham 300 Index and receives a fixed payment of 2.4% per year, both computed on a $40 million notional. Which statement about this swap is most accurate?

  1. The fund may let a settlement lapse whenever the index return is negative, because a negative return requires no payment from either party
  2. The fund exchanges the $40 million notional against index units at initiation and reverses the exchange at maturity
  3. The fund must settle on every quarterly date for the full three years, whatever the index return turns out to be
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: C

Explanation: C is correct. An equity swap is a forward commitment: both legs are binding on every scheduled date, so the fund must make or receive a settlement each quarter for three years regardless of how the index performs — the size of each payment is uncertain, but the obligation to settle is unconditional. A is incorrect because there is no right to let a settlement lapse; when the index return is negative the fund's index leg is itself negative, so the fund receives the amount of the decline as well as its fixed receipt — the settlement still takes place. B is incorrect because a single-currency equity swap never exchanges the notional; the $40 million merely scales the payments, unlike a currency swap, whose two legs are denominated in different currencies and therefore exchange principal.

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Original, unofficial practice material; not a CFA Institute question.